Hare Krishna, please excuse me if my questions sound ignorant, I'm new to Iskcon.
I came across this verse - CC Adi 7.128 and in the purport Srila Prabhupada has written whether he chants omkara or the Hare Krishna mantra, the result is certainly the same.
my question is, then why do we chant the Hare Krishna mantra instead of om if result is same? And the people who chant om but never the mahamantra, do they attain Goloka as well and develop Krishna prema?
And it also said in the purpose, Without omkara, no Vedic mantra is successful.
so my another question is, there is no om in mahamantra, so how does it fit in with that statement?
I admit I didn't understand the whole purport well, it was very hard for me. But these questions came to my mind.